What Does Galatians 4.4 Mean When it Says that Jesus is "Born Under The Law"?

Eli Kittim

Kittim's Futurist Eschatology

As you may know, my unique view is that Jesus has not yet come to earth and that he'll make his first appearance "once in the end of the world" (Heb. 9.26b KJV) or in the "last days" (Heb. 1.2) or "at the final point of time" (1 Pet. 1.20 NJB)! So, before attempting to expound on what being "born under the law" means, let me briefly explain how Gal. 4.4 closely ties into my unique futurist view. I will briefly refer to my interpretation of Gal. 4.4 so that you can understand the basis of my hermeneutic, but will not delve into it at length.

Interpreting the Implicit by the Explicit

We won't be able to mine the depths of Scripture if we don't allow the Bible to tell us what something means. We are accustomed to imposing our own presuppositions on the text (called eisegesis). That's why the best interpretation is no interpretation at all! For example, since there is a verbal agreement between Gal. 4.4 and Eph. 1.9-10 with respect to the phrase, "the fullness of time," we should allow the more explicit passage in Ephesians to interpret and define the more implicit one in Galatians. Ephesians 1.9-10 (NASB) reads thusly:

"He [God] made known to us the mystery of
His will, according to His kind intention
which He purposed in Him with a view to an
administration suitable to the fullness of the
times, that is, the summing up of all things
in Christ, things in the heavens and things
on the earth."

In this case, the key word that gives us the meaning of "the fullness of time" in Ephesians 1.10 is the Greek term ἀνακεφαλαιώσασθαι ("summing up"). It means "completion," "end," "summary" (see Lampe, A Patristic Greek Lexicon, [Oxford: Oxford University, 1961], p. 106)! The didactic or exegetical principle is as follows: if this time-period or timeline in Ephesians refers to the final consummation and the conclusion of all things or the summing-up (ἀνακεφαλαιώσασθαι) of all things in Christ, both in the heavens and on the earth, then the same exact phrase in Galatians 4.4, given that it refers to the same temporal context, must have an identical meaning. And, if that's the case, then the phrase should refer to the consummation of the ages, not to 2,000 years ago! Therefore, we have erred linguistically by attributing this eschatological expression to the time of antiquity! We have thereby misinterpreted the Greek text.

Is the Law Still Applicable Today?

Now that we understand Galatians 4.4 as a reference to future eschatology, the question arises: how can Gal. 4.4 be a reference to modern times? In other words, how is the law still applicable in our day and age? More specifically, how do we interpret Gal. 4.4 when it says that God's Son is "born under the law"? It's a very good question. And it was asked by a member of the Eli of Kittim Bible Exegesis Group on Facebook.

Here's the answer. The first thing to realize is that Galatians 4.4 is in fact referring to the Mosaic Law and depicts Christ's birth as if it takes place under the law (ὑπὸ νόμον). The use of this often repeated term (νόμον) in the Bible ensures us that Gal. 4.4 is not referring to the natural law. It's also important to understand that the Mosaic Law, including the 10 commandments, was not only intended for the Jews, it was meant to be the standard of morality for the entire human race. And we would be judged by it accordingly until the arrival of grace in Christ Jesus. So why are we told that Jesus is "born under the law"? The next verse tells us why:

"in order to redeem those who were under
the law, so that we might receive adoption
as children (v. 5)."

Has the Law Been Abolished or Not?